CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Practice Exam

What the CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) exam covers

• Mobile Devices71 questions
• Networking152 questions
• Hardware157 questions
• Virtualization and Cloud Computing68 questions
• Hardware and Network Troubleshooting175 questions

Free 220-1201 practice test questions

A sample of 10 questions with answers and explanations. A free account includes a fixed set of 20 practice questions for this exam, retryable anytime. Paid access unlocks the full 623-question bank.

1. Question 1Mobile Devices

   Which solution lets an organization centrally enforce policies and remotely wipe lost corporate mobile devices?

   • AGroup Policy Objects (GPO)
   • BMobile Application Management (MAM)
   • CMobile Device Management (MDM)Correct
   • DA network access control appliance
   ✓ Correct answer: C

   MDM is an enterprise solution that lets IT administrators centrally enroll, configure, monitor, and manage mobile devices from a management console wherever the devices are. Key capabilities include pushing security policies (screen-lock PIN requirements, encryption enforcement, app allow and block lists), over-the-air configuration profiles, remote lock when a device is reported lost, and remote wipe to erase the device if it is stolen. Current MDM platforms include Microsoft Intune, Omnissa Workspace ONE UEM (formerly VMware Workspace ONE), Ivanti (which acquired MobileIron), and Jamf for Apple devices.

   Why the other options are wrong

   • AGroup Policy applies to domain-joined machines over the corporate network, so it cannot reach a phone that is lost and off the network, and it has no remote wipe.
   • BMobile Application Management is deliberately narrower: it governs the corporate apps and the data inside them, so it can wipe company data from an app but not enforce device-wide policy.
   • DNetwork access control decides what a device may reach when it tries to join the network, so it can keep a non-compliant phone off the LAN but cannot manage or wipe one elsewhere.
2. Question 2Hardware

   After adding RAM, a technician wants to confirm the system now runs in dual-channel mode for better memory bandwidth. Which is the BEST way to verify this?

   • ARead the capacity and part number printed on each module's label
   • BCount how many of the board's DIMM slots are populated
   • CCheck each module's rated speed (MT/s) in its SPD data
   • DCheck BIOS/UEFI for the reported memory channel modeCorrect
   ✓ Correct answer: D

   Dual-channel memory mode requires that matched DIMMs be installed in specific paired slots on the motherboard (typically color-coded, such as slots 1 and 3, or A1 and B1). Whether the system successfully activated dual-channel is reported by the BIOS/UEFI memory configuration screen during POST, and by CPU-Z's Memory tab in Windows, which shows "Dual" under the Channels field. Without this verification, a technician cannot confirm the correct installation - inserting both DIMMs in adjacent slots (e.g., slots 1 and 2) would result in single-channel operation even with identical modules.

   Why the other options are wrong

   • ARead the capacity and part number printed on each module's label is incorrect because those markings identify the stick, not the operating mode; identical modules can still run in single channel if placed in the wrong slots, so the label cannot confirm dual-channel operation.
   • BCount how many of the board's DIMM slots are populated is incorrect because populated-slot count alone does not confirm dual-channel: two modules in the wrong (non-paired) slots run in single channel, so only the firmware or utility report of the channel mode is authoritative.
   • CCheck each module's rated speed (MT/s) in its SPD data is incorrect because a module's rated frequency is independent of whether the memory controller paired the DIMMs; speed and channel mode are separate attributes, so the rated speed cannot verify dual-channel operation.
3. Question 3Mobile Devices

   Which laptop display technology produces true black by switching individual pixels off?

   • AOLED, where each pixel emits its own lightCorrect
   • BIPS, which improves the viewing angle
   • CTN, which offers the fastest response
   • DLCD with an LED backlight behind it
   ✓ Correct answer: A

   Every LCD variant works by blocking a backlight that stays lit, so the darkest pixel still leaks some light and black renders as very dark grey. OLED removes the backlight entirely: each pixel emits its own light, and switching it off produces true black and effectively infinite contrast, at the cost of higher price and a risk of burn-in from static elements. IPS and TN are LCD panel types that trade viewing angle against response time, and both still depend on a backlight.

   Why the other options are wrong

   • BIPS is an LCD type and still blocks a lit backlight.
   • CTN panels trade image quality for the fastest response time and are still LCDs, so the backlight stays lit and black renders grey.
   • DThe backlight stays lit, so black leaks light.
4. Question 4Hardware

   What does a Trusted Platform Module provide to a workstation?

   • AHardware-backed storage for keys and measurementsCorrect
   • BAdditional memory available to applications
   • CFaster storage access through caching
   • DAn extra network interface for management
   ✓ Correct answer: A

   It provides a place to generate and store cryptographic keys where software cannot extract them, and it records measurements of the boot process so the system can tell whether it started in the expected state. That combination is what lets full-disk encryption unlock automatically on a healthy machine while refusing on one that has been tampered with, and it underpins secure boot and device attestation. It adds no memory, no storage acceleration and no network interface.

   Why the other options are wrong

   • BA TPM exposes no general-purpose memory to applications; its storage holds keys and measurements only.
   • CA TPM plays no part in storage access or caching, so it changes no storage performance.
   • DA TPM is not a network device and provides no extra network interface.
5. Question 5Networking

   Which fiber connector is used on most SFP optical transceivers, such as 1000BASE-SX and 1000BASE-LX modules, for data center patching?

   • ALCCorrect
   • BSC
   • CST
   • DBNC
   ✓ Correct answer: A

   The Lucent connector (LC) is a small form-factor fiber connector with a latching clip, and its compact size lets many ports fit on a switch or patch panel. Cisco's Gigabit Ethernet SFP datasheet lists a dual LC/PC connector for its 1000BASE-SX, 1000BASE-LX/LH, 1000BASE-EX and 1000BASE-ZX modules. The larger square push-pull connector is the subscriber connector (SC).

   Why the other options are wrong

   • BSC is a larger square push-pull fiber connector, common on older equipment and patch panels; it is too large for the dual-port SFP face.
   • CST is a round bayonet-style fiber connector found on older multimode installations, not on SFP modules.
   • DBNC is a bayonet connector for coaxial cable, not fiber.
6. Question 6Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

   An SSD reports rapidly increasing reallocated-sector and wear-leveling S.M.A.R.T. warnings. What is the correct action?

   • ARun the manufacturer's secure erase to reset the reallocated sector count
   • BBack up the data immediately and plan to replace the driveCorrect
   • CDefragment the SSD so data moves onto the remaining healthy blocks
   • DRun TRIM manually to recover the failing NAND cells
   ✓ Correct answer: B

   S.M.A.R.T. attributes such as reallocated sectors and wear leveling track how much of the flash has worn out or been replaced from spare blocks. When they climb quickly, the drive is consuming its spare capacity and endurance and may fail soon. The professional response is to back up the data immediately and replace the drive.

   Why the other options are wrong

   • AA secure erase wipes user data but cannot restore worn flash; the wear and reallocation figures reflect physical damage.
   • CDefragmenting gives an SSD no benefit, adds extra writes that wear it further, and cannot repair failing cells.
   • DTRIM tells the drive which blocks are no longer in use; it does not repair worn cells or reverse the wear.
7. Question 7Mobile Devices

   A thin laptop cannot have its memory upgraded at all. What explains this?

   • AThe memory is soldered to the boardCorrect
   • BThe memory is protected by firmware
   • CThe operating system caps the amount
   • DThe memory runs in dual-channel mode
   ✓ Correct answer: A

   Thin designs often solder memory directly to the mainboard because it saves the height a socket needs and allows faster signalling, and the consequence is that the amount chosen at purchase is permanent. Lenovo's specifications for the ThinkPad T14 Gen 4 state it plainly: models with LPDDR5x have 16GB soldered memory, not upgradable, while other models pair soldered memory with one SO-DIMM slot. That is why checking whether memory is socketed or soldered belongs in the specification stage rather than the upgrade stage.

   Why the other options are wrong

   • BFirmware does not prevent a physical module being fitted.
   • COperating system limits are far above these capacities.
   • DDual-channel operation describes how installed memory is accessed; Lenovo pairs soldered memory with a free SO-DIMM slot in dual-channel mode on some models.
8. Question 8Hardware

   A small office needs its server to keep running for several minutes when the mains supply fails, long enough to shut down cleanly. Which device provides this?

   • AAn uninterruptible power supplyCorrect
   • BA surge suppressor power strip
   • CA redundant power supply in the server
   • DA rack power distribution unit
   ✓ Correct answer: A

   An uninterruptible power supply contains a battery that takes over when the mains fails, providing short-term backup power so the equipment can keep running or be shut down cleanly. A surge suppressor clamps spikes on the supply but provides no power once the supply stops. A redundant power supply gives the server two power supply units so one can fail without an outage, but both still depend on the mains, so a power cut stops both. A power distribution unit distributes mains power to the equipment in a rack and has no stored energy.

   Why the other options are wrong

   • BA surge suppressor protects against spikes but provides no power at all once the mains supply stops.
   • CA redundant power supply survives the failure of one unit inside the server, but both units still need mains power.
   • DA power distribution unit only distributes mains power to rack equipment and holds no stored energy.
9. Question 9Mobile Devices

   A user is comparing charging options for a new phone that supports both a USB-C port and Qi wireless charging. Which statement correctly compares the two methods?

   • AWired USB-C charging is typically faster than Qi wireless chargingCorrect
   • BQi wireless charging needs no physical contact with the phone
   • CQi wireless charging produces less heat than wired USB-C charging
   • DQi wireless charging pads can work through several inches of open air
   ✓ Correct answer: A

   USB-C charging delivers power through a direct electrical connection, allowing higher wattages and faster charge times than Qi wireless charging, which transfers energy inductively and loses efficiency to heat. Qi still requires the phone to sit directly on the charging pad rather than floating nearby, and its coil losses make it run warmer than a wired connection.

   Why the other options are wrong

   • BQi charging still requires the phone to rest directly on or very near the charging coil.
   • CInductive transfer is less efficient than a direct wired connection, so Qi charging usually produces more heat, not less.
   • DQi's inductive range is only a few millimeters, not several inches of open air.
10. Question 10Hardware

    A graphics card has two eight-pin power sockets and only one cable is fitted. What happens?

    • AIt refuses to run, or runs at reduced speedCorrect
    • BIt draws the shortfall through the PCIe slot
    • CIt operates normally with no consequence
    • DIt damages the supply within a few minutes
    ✓ Correct answer: A

    The sockets exist because the slot alone cannot supply what the card draws, and the card checks that each expected connector is present. With one missing, behaviour depends on the model: many refuse to output anything and often warn on screen or with a light, and others run at a heavily reduced clock, which shows as poor performance rather than an obvious fault. Both are protective. Cards cannot draw the shortfall through the slot, which is capped by the PCIe specification, and the supply is not damaged by an unused connector.

    Why the other options are wrong

    • BThe slot's contribution is capped by the specification, which is why the extra connectors exist; the card cannot pull more through it.
    • CIt does not operate normally with no consequence: the connectors exist because the slot alone is insufficient.
    • DAn unused connector does not damage the supply.

Who this CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) practice exam is for

This practice set is for anyone preparing for the CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) exam - from first-time candidates building a foundation to experienced IT Support practitioners doing a final review before test day. If you learn best by working through realistic questions and reading why each answer is right or wrong, it is built for you.

How to use this CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) practice exam

1. Start with the free sample questions above to gauge your current baseline.
2. Read the full explanation on every question, including why each wrong option is wrong.
3. Track your weak domains and focus your study where you are losing the most marks.
4. Once you are scoring consistently well, take a timed, full-length mock exam.
5. Use your readiness score to decide when you are ready to book the real CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) exam.

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