CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1202) Practice Exam

What the CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1202) exam covers

• Operating Systems191 questions
• Security190 questions
• Software Troubleshooting151 questions
• Operational Procedures132 questions

Free 220-1202 practice test questions

A sample of 10 questions with answers and explanations. A free account includes a fixed set of 20 practice questions for this exam, retryable anytime. Paid access unlocks the full 664-question bank.

1. Question 1Operating Systems

   Which Windows tool manages disk partitions and volumes graphically?

   • ATask Manager
   • BEvent Viewer
   • CDevice Manager
   • DDisk ManagementCorrect
   ✓ Correct answer: D

   Disk Management (diskmgmt.msc) is a built-in Windows MMC snap-in that provides a graphical interface for all disk partitioning operations. Technicians use it to initialize new disks, create and delete primary, extended, and logical partitions, format volumes with NTFS or FAT32, assign or change drive letters, mark partitions as active, extend or shrink volumes, and convert between MBR and GPT partition styles. It provides a visual disk map showing the size and layout of all physical disks and their partitions simultaneously, making it the standard tool for storage management on Windows systems.

   Why the other options are wrong

   • ATask Manager is incorrect because Task Manager (taskmgr.exe) monitors and manages running processes, CPU, memory, disk, and network performance, and controls startup programs; it provides no disk partitioning or volume management functionality.
   • BEvent Viewer is incorrect because Event Viewer (eventvwr.msc) displays the Windows event logs including Application, Security, and System logs for diagnosing errors and auditing system activity; it shows logged events but cannot create, delete, or modify disk partitions.
   • CDevice Manager manages hardware devices and their drivers, including the disk controller, but it does not create, resize or format partitions.
2. Question 2Security

   Which access-control model grants permissions based on a user's job role rather than per-user assignment?

   • AMAC (mandatory access control)
   • BRule-based filtering on a switch
   • CDAC (discretionary access control)
   • DRBAC (role-based access control)Correct
   ✓ Correct answer: D

   Role-based access control assigns permissions to defined organizational roles rather than to individual user accounts, so that when a user is assigned to a role, they automatically inherit all the permissions associated with that role. This model simplifies administration in large environments because changes to a role's permissions automatically apply to every user assigned to that role, eliminating the need to modify access rights user by user. RBAC is widely used in enterprise environments and is the basis for permission management in Active Directory groups, database systems, and cloud platforms.

   Why the other options are wrong

   • AMAC (mandatory access control) is incorrect because MAC assigns security labels and clearance levels to subjects and objects, with access decisions enforced by the system based on classification rather than job role; it is commonly used in military and government environments.
   • BRule-based filtering on a switch is incorrect because switch-level filtering uses access control lists based on MAC addresses, VLANs, or port rules to control network traffic flow, not to assign user permissions based on organizational job roles.
   • CDAC (discretionary access control) is incorrect because DAC allows resource owners to set permissions at their own discretion, granting or denying access on a per-user or per-group basis rather than through centrally defined organizational roles.
3. Question 3SecuritySelect all that apply

   Staff should be able to recognise a phishing message. Which TWO signs are most useful? (Select two.)

   • AUrgency or threat pressing for immediate actionCorrect
   • BA sender address or link that does not match the claimCorrect
   • CThe message arriving outside normal office hours
   • DThe message containing an image in its signature
   • EThe message being addressed to several recipients
   ✓ Correct answer: A, B

   Urgency is present in almost every case because the attack depends on the recipient acting before they verify, so it is the most reliable prompt to slow down. Mismatched details are the confirmation: a display name that does not match the actual address, or a link whose destination differs from its text, which hovering reveals. Together they catch most attempts. The rejected signs occur constantly in legitimate mail and would train people to distrust ordinary messages.

   Why the other options are wrong

   • CA message arriving outside normal office hours proves nothing, because legitimate mail arrives at all hours.
   • DA message containing an image in its signature is entirely normal in genuine business mail.
   • EMultiple recipients are common in genuine mail.
4. Question 4Operating SystemsSelect all that apply

   Which TWO Windows commands help determine where packets are being sent, one by showing the local routing table and one by listing each router hop to a destination? (Choose TWO)

   • Aroute printCorrect
   • BtracertCorrect
   • Carp -a
   • Dnslookup
   ✓ Correct answer: A, B

   On Windows, 'route print' displays the local IP routing table, while 'tracert' lists each hop (router) a packet traverses to reach a target, helping isolate where connectivity breaks. Both are network-diagnostic commands.

   Why the other options are wrong

   • Carp -a is incorrect because it displays the ARP cache of IP-to-MAC mappings for neighbours on the local network; it shows neither routes nor hops.
   • Dnslookup is incorrect because it queries DNS to resolve names and addresses; it does not show how packets are routed.
5. Question 5Software Troubleshooting

   After a failed Windows feature update, a PC boots into a loop and never reaches the desktop. Which recovery option lets the technician roll back without losing user files?

   • APerform a clean reinstall of Windows from installation media
   • BRun Startup Repair from WinRE to remove the update
   • CBoot to Safe Mode and run Disk Cleanup to free space
   • DUse Windows Recovery Environment to uninstall the updateCorrect
   ✓ Correct answer: D

   When a failed update stops Windows from reaching the desktop, the Windows Recovery Environment still runs. Its Uninstall Updates option removes recently installed quality or feature updates, returning the system to its state before the update while keeping personal files and apps.

   Why the other options are wrong

   • AA clean reinstall removes the faulty update but also erases user files and apps.
   • BStartup Repair automatically diagnoses and repairs common issues that stop Windows from starting; choosing and removing a recent update is the separate Uninstall Updates option in WinRE.
   • CDisk Cleanup only deletes temporary and unneeded files; it cannot uninstall a feature update or break the boot loop.
6. Question 6Operational ProceduresSelect all that apply

   A technician is called to a workstation suspected of being used for illegal activity and may need to preserve the device for law enforcement. Which TWO actions correctly support proper incident-response handling? (Choose TWO)

   • ADocument the incident thoroughly, including who found it and whenCorrect
   • BMaintain chain of custody by tracking who handled the evidence and whenCorrect
   • CRun a full antivirus scan to check whether malware is responsible
   • DAsk the user to explain the files before reporting the incident
   ✓ Correct answer: A, B

   Incident response for possible illegal activity requires documenting how evidence was found and preserved, and keeping a chain of custody that records every transfer of the evidence from person to person. This keeps the evidence admissible and shows it was not altered. Management and law enforcement are informed as necessary.

   Why the other options are wrong

   • CA scan writes to the disk and changes file metadata, altering the evidence before it is preserved.
   • DQuestioning the user first can alert them, and the technician's role is to preserve and report, not to investigate.
7. Question 7Software Troubleshooting

   A process is using almost all of the processor continuously on an otherwise idle Windows machine. What should the technician do first?

   • AEnd the process in Task Manager straight away
   • BSwitch the power plan to High performance
   • CIncrease the size of the page file
   • DIdentify the process and where it runs fromCorrect
   ✓ Correct answer: D

   Several different situations produce the same symptom, and the process name and path distinguish them: a legitimate maintenance task such as indexing or an update that will finish on its own, an application stuck in a loop that should be ended and restarted, or something that should not be present at all. Task Manager names it and can open its file location. Ending it blind, giving it more power or changing virtual memory all act before knowing which of those situations applies.

   Why the other options are wrong

   • AEnding an unknown process can interrupt a legitimate task or hide evidence of a compromise.
   • BRaising the power plan gives the process more headroom without explaining it.
   • CThe page file relieves memory pressure, not processor load.
8. Question 8Operational Procedures

   Why does an organization define how long each kind of record is kept?

   • ARetention periods decide how often backups run
   • BLaws require some records kept and others deletedCorrect
   • CRetention periods decide which data is encrypted
   • DRetention periods decide who may access each record
   ✓ Correct answer: B

   Legal, regulatory and contractual obligations set minimum periods for records such as financial and employment data, while privacy rules limit how long personal data may be kept once it is no longer needed. A retention schedule applies those rules consistently and supports defensible disposal. Backup frequency, encryption and access control are separate decisions driven by other requirements.

   Why the other options are wrong

   • ABackup frequency is set by recovery objectives, not retention periods.
   • CEncryption is decided by data classification, not by how long data is kept.
   • DAccess is decided by roles and permissions, not retention periods.
9. Question 9Operating SystemsSelect all that apply

   An in-place upgrade to a newer Windows version is about to be run on a working machine. Which TWO checks come first? (Select two.)

   • AAll user applications have been uninstalled
   • BA verified backup of the user's data existsCorrect
   • CEnough free space for the upgrade to runCorrect
   • DThe machine has been restarted since the last update
   • EThe system drive has been defragmented
   ✓ Correct answer: B, C

   An in-place upgrade is designed to keep files, settings and applications and usually does, but it rewrites the system while running, and a failure partway is the case a backup exists for, so a verified one beforehand makes the operation reversible. Free space is the practical blocker, since the process stages files and keeps the previous installation for rollback. CompTIA lists backing up files and user preferences among upgrade considerations.

   Why the other options are wrong

   • AAn in-place upgrade is designed to keep applications, so removing them adds work without making the upgrade safer.
   • DRestarting since the last update clears pending operations, which helps, but it is not one of the two checks that protect the data and the upgrade.
   • EDefragmenting neither protects the data nor creates the space the upgrade needs.
10. Question 10Software Troubleshooting

    A desktop PC displays 'INACCESSIBLE_BOOT_DEVICE' on a blue screen every time it is powered on, and Windows never finishes loading. The technician confirms in the BIOS that the boot drive is detected correctly. Which action should be tried FIRST to resolve this?

    • ABoot install media and run Startup RepairCorrect
    • BReplace the boot drive with a new SSD
    • CRun Windows Memory Diagnostic from the boot menu
    • DReset this PC from WinRE, removing everything
    ✓ Correct answer: A

    INACCESSIBLE_BOOT_DEVICE with a properly detected drive usually points to a corrupted boot configuration or driver issue rather than hardware failure. Booting from Windows installation media and running Startup Repair lets WinRE scan for and automatically correct boot-related problems before more invasive steps, like manually rebuilding the BCD, are ever attempted.

    Why the other options are wrong

    • BReplacing the drive is premature because the BIOS detects it correctly; this stop code most often comes from boot configuration or storage driver problems that Startup Repair can fix without new hardware.
    • CMemory Diagnostic tests RAM, but this stop code means Windows lost access to the system partition during start-up, which is a storage driver or boot configuration problem rather than a memory fault.
    • DA reset reinstalls Windows and removes data and apps; it may eventually be needed, but it is far more drastic than Startup Repair and is not the first action.

Who this CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1202) practice exam is for

This practice set is for anyone preparing for the CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1202) exam - from first-time candidates building a foundation to experienced IT Support practitioners doing a final review before test day. If you learn best by working through realistic questions and reading why each answer is right or wrong, it is built for you.

How to use this CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1202) practice exam

1. Start with the free sample questions above to gauge your current baseline.
2. Read the full explanation on every question, including why each wrong option is wrong.
3. Track your weak domains and focus your study where you are losing the most marks.
4. Once you are scoring consistently well, take a timed, full-length mock exam.
5. Use your readiness score to decide when you are ready to book the real CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1202) exam.

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