PMP: Project Management Professional Practice Exam

What the PMP exam covers

• People319 questions
• Process380 questions
• Business Environment61 questions

Free PMP sample questions

A sample of 10 questions with answers and explanations. Sign up free to practice all 760.

1. Question 1Business Environment

   Midway through a predictive project, the project manager learns that changed market conditions have significantly lowered the ROI projected in the approved business case. What should the project manager do FIRST?

   • AHalt all project work immediately until additional funding is secured
   • BPresent the updated financial data to the sponsor so the business case can be reassessedCorrect
   • CContinue executing the approved plan since the business case was already sanctioned
   • DUnilaterally trim the project budget to bring the ROI back to the original target
   ✓ Correct answer: B

   The project manager does not own the business case and should not decide alone whether to stop, continue, or re-cut the budget. The correct move is to surface the changed data to the sponsor and governance body, who are accountable for deciding whether the project remains a sound investment.

   Why the other options are wrong

   • AStopping work unilaterally exceeds the project manager's authority and is premature before governance reviews the numbers.
   • CIgnoring new financial information and pressing ahead risks continuing an investment that no longer makes sense.
   • DChanging the budget alone does not address whether the underlying business case is still valid, and that authority sits with the sponsor and governance.
2. Question 2People

   A project manager tells a highly experienced business analyst exactly which fields to include in a requirements document and reviews every sentence before it is shared, even though the analyst has successfully delivered similar documents many times before. What is the most likely consequence of this leadership approach?

   • AImproved document quality due to close oversight
   • BReduced motivation and a missed chance to delegateCorrect
   • CFaster delivery because ambiguity is removed
   • DBetter stakeholder alignment
   ✓ Correct answer: B

   The analyst has already demonstrated competence and commitment, so a delegating style would likely serve better than close direction, which can feel like a lack of trust.

   Why the other options are wrong

   • AExcessive oversight of a proven expert is more likely to slow output and demotivate than improve quality.
   • CThe added review cycles typically slow delivery rather than speed it up.
   • DStakeholder alignment is not affected by how closely the analyst's draft is supervised.
3. Question 3People

   A remote developer has been on the team for two months, and the project manager realizes they have never had a one-on-one conversation, relying only on group standups for interaction. What should the project manager do?

   • AContinue relying on group meetings for updates
   • BSchedule regular one-on-one check-insCorrect
   • CAsk another team member to check in instead
   • DWait until a performance issue arises
   ✓ Correct answer: B

   Personal check-ins give the project manager direct visibility into how the remote developer is doing, something group standups alone rarely surface.

   Why the other options are wrong

   • AGroup meetings alone may not surface individual concerns or build the same level of personal trust.
   • CDelegating this relationship-building responsibility away from the project manager misses an opportunity to connect directly.
   • DWaiting for a problem to surface before ever checking in individually is a reactive approach that could have been avoided.
4. Question 4People

   A project manager successfully predicts that a particular stakeholder will resist a proposed change due to past experiences with failed projects, and prepares the conversation accordingly. This reflects strong use of which skill?

   • ASocial awareness, reading and anticipating others' likely reactionsCorrect
   • BSelf-management
   • CTechnical risk analysis only, based purely on the numbers in the project risk register
   • DConflict avoidance
   ✓ Correct answer: A

   Reading and anticipating how another person is likely to feel and react, based on their history, is a strong demonstration of social awareness.

   Why the other options are wrong

   • BSelf-management concerns regulating one's own emotions, not anticipating another person's reaction.
   • CThis is an interpersonal read of the stakeholder, not a technical risk calculation.
   • DAnticipating and preparing for a reaction is proactive engagement, not avoidance.
5. Question 5People

   A team member believes that no matter how much effort she puts in, she will not be able to successfully complete a task due to inadequate tools, and therefore stops trying. According to Vroom's expectancy theory, which link in the motivation chain is broken?

   • AValence
   • BExpectancyCorrect
   • CInstrumentality
   • DHygiene value
   ✓ Correct answer: B

   Expectancy is the belief that effort will lead to successful performance. When a team member believes effort will not lead to a successful result, regardless of how hard she tries, the expectancy link is broken.

   Why the other options are wrong

   • AValence concerns how much the reward is valued, not whether effort leads to performance.
   • CInstrumentality concerns whether performance leads to a reward, not whether effort leads to performance.
   • DHygiene value is not a component of Vroom's expectancy theory.
6. Question 6Process

   A new project has clear, stable requirements defined by a signed regulatory standard, and the customer will not be available for feedback until final delivery. Which development approach should the project manager select?

   • AAgile with two-week sprints and continuous customer demos
   • BPredictive, with detailed upfront planning and a fixed scope baselineCorrect
   • CHybrid, using agile for requirements and predictive for delivery
   • DIterative, releasing incomplete increments for informal feedback
   ✓ Correct answer: B

   When requirements are stable, documented, and unlikely to change, and stakeholders cannot provide frequent feedback, a predictive life cycle lets the team plan scope, schedule, and cost in detail up front and execute against a fixed baseline. Agile depends on frequent stakeholder engagement to steer the backlog, which is not available here.

   Why the other options are wrong

   • AAgile relies on frequent customer feedback to steer scope each iteration; that feedback loop does not exist here until final delivery.
   • CA hybrid approach adds coordination overhead that is not justified when scope is already stable and fully defined.
   • DIterative releases target early feedback and course correction, which is wasted when the customer is unavailable until the end.
7. Question 7Process

   The project manager is asked why the schedule model shows several 'free float' days on a non-critical activity but the project end date does not change if that activity slips within those days. What is the best explanation?

   • AFree float is how much the activity can slip without delaying its successor's early startCorrect
   • BFree float always equals total float on every activity
   • CFree float only applies to activities on the critical path
   • DFree float means the activity can be delayed indefinitely with no consequence
   ✓ Correct answer: A

   Free float measures how much an activity can be delayed without pushing back the early start of its very next successor, which is why a slip within that limited window does not ripple forward to the project end date.

   Why the other options are wrong

   • BFree float and total float can differ; free float is specifically about the next successor's early start, a narrower measure.
   • CCritical path activities have zero float by definition, so free float as a meaningful cushion applies to non-critical activities like this one.
   • DFree float is a specific, limited number of days, not an indefinite allowance.
8. Question 8Process

   A project manager needs to know which team members are on approved leave next month and when a specialized piece of equipment is already booked for another project. Which document should the project manager consult?

   • AResource calendarsCorrect
   • BRACI matrix
   • CTeam charter
   • DResponsibility assignment matrix
   ✓ Correct answer: A

   Resource calendars document the availability windows of people and equipment, including planned leave and existing bookings for shared resources.

   Why the other options are wrong

   • BA RACI matrix shows who is responsible, accountable, consulted, and informed for specific activities, it does not show availability dates.
   • CA team charter documents team values, ground rules, and operating agreements, it does not track availability.
   • DThe responsibility assignment matrix maps roles to activities, it is not a resource availability record.
9. Question 9Process

   A risk response plan calls for switching to a backup supplier if the primary supplier misses a delivery deadline. If that backup supplier also fails to deliver, the project manager has a separate, pre-defined arrangement ready to use as a last resort. What is this last-resort arrangement called?

   • AA contingency plan
   • BA fallback planCorrect
   • CA workaround
   • DA residual risk
   ✓ Correct answer: B

   A fallback plan is prepared in advance for use only if the primary risk response, the contingency plan, does not fully work, providing a documented last-resort course of action.

   Why the other options are wrong

   • AThe contingency plan is the initial planned response, in this case switching to the backup supplier, not the plan used if that response also fails.
   • CA workaround is an unplanned reaction to a risk that was never identified in advance, not a pre-defined backup plan.
   • DA residual risk is remaining exposure after a response, not an action plan.
10. Question 10Process

    Quality control finds the same type of defect recurring across several deliverables produced by different team members. Retraining the whole team on the coding standard, going forward, is an example of which type of action?

    • ADefect repair
    • BPreventive action
    • CCorrective actionCorrect
    • DRisk transfer
    ✓ Correct answer: C

    Corrective action realigns the performance of the project work with the plan after a problem has already occurred, in this case a process gap causing recurring defects. It targets the process, not just one product.

    Why the other options are wrong

    • ADefect repair fixes the specific nonconforming deliverables, not the broader team process.
    • BPreventive action addresses a potential future problem before it occurs; here the problem has already occurred repeatedly.
    • DRisk transfer shifts risk ownership to a third party and does not apply to correcting a quality process.

Who this PMP practice exam is for

This practice set is for anyone preparing for the PMP: Project Management Professional exam at the advanced level - from first-time candidates building a foundation to experienced IT practitioners doing a final review before test day. If you learn best by working through realistic questions and reading why each answer is right or wrong, it is built for you.

How to use this PMP practice exam

1. Start with the free sample questions above to gauge your current baseline.
2. Read the full explanation on every question, including why each wrong option is wrong.
3. Track your weak domains and focus your study where you are losing the most marks.
4. Once you are scoring consistently well, take a timed, full-length mock exam.
5. Use your readiness score to decide when you are ready to book the real PMP exam.

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